ISACA New 2026 CRISC Sample Questions Reliable CRISC Test Engine
Feel ISACA CRISC Dumps PDF Will likely be The best Option
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) certification exam is designed to help IT professionals develop expertise in identifying and managing risks related to technology systems. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is recognized globally and is highly respected in the IT industry. Those who pass the exam demonstrate their ability to assess and manage risks, design and implement controls, and ensure that organizational goals and objectives are met.
The CRISC certification is highly respected in the IT industry and is recognized by many employers as a valuable credential for professionals who are responsible for managing IT risk and information systems control. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is ideal for IT professionals who work in risk management, information security, IT audit, and compliance.
ISACA CRISC (Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control) is a globally recognized certification for professionals in the field of information systems risk management. The CRISC certification validates an individual's knowledge and expertise in managing information systems risks and implementing information systems controls. The CRISC certification is offered by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), an international professional association focused on information technology governance.
NEW QUESTION # 330
An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the
following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?
- A. The reason some databases have not been encrypted
- B. The cost required to enforce encryption
- C. The number of users who can access sensitive data
- D. A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data would
be the most important information for assessing the risk impact, because it would help to determine the extent
and severity of the potential data breach or loss. The risk impact is the effect or consequence of the risk
occurrence on the business objectives and operations. A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive
data would indicate the scope and magnitude of the risk exposure and the potential damage to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. The other options are not the most important information
for assessing the risk impact, as they are less relevant or less specific than a list of unencrypted databases
which contain sensitive data. The number of users who can access sensitive data would indicate the level of
access control and the likelihood of unauthorized access, but it would not indicate thetype and value of the
data. The reason some databases have not been encrypted would indicate the cause and rationale of the risk,
but it would not indicate the effect or consequence of the risk. The cost required to enforce encryption would
indicate the feasibility and affordability of the risk response, but it would not indicate the potential loss or
harm of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 78.
NEW QUESTION # 331
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:
- A. include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,
- B. include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,
- C. include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,
- D. publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment, such as new or emerging risks, changes in risk levels, risk responses, or control effectiveness. The best way to engage stakeholder attention is to include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs, meaning that the report should highlight the key points and findings that are relevant and important for the stakeholder's role, responsibility, and interest. The summary should also explain how the information affects the stakeholder's objectives, expectations, and decisions. The summary should be concise, clear, and compelling, and should capture the stakeholder's attention and interest. The report can also include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks, a roadmap to achieve operational excellence, or an option to publish the report on-demand for stakeholders, but these are not the best ways to engage stakeholder attention, as they may not be directly related to the stakeholder's needs or may overwhelm the stakeholder with too much information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, p. 124-125
NEW QUESTION # 332
Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?
- A. Accurate measurement of loss impact
- B. Early detection of emerging threats
- C. Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance
- D. Prioritization of risk action plans across departments
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 333
Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?
- A. Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols
- B. Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios
- C. Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems
- D. Variances between organizational risk appetites
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 334
Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?
- A. The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.
- B. A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.
- C. A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.
- D. Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 335
Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
- A. The data is relevant.
- B. The data is measurable.
- C. The data is calculated continuously.
- D. The data is automatically produced.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 336
Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?
- A. Number of successful recovery plan tests
- B. Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed
- C. Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection
- D. Percentage of employees who can work remotely
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key control indicator (KCI) is a metric that provides information on the extent to which a given control is meeting its intended objectives in terms of loss prevention, reduction, etc. A KCI should have an explicit relationship to both the specific control and the specific risk against which the control has been implemented.
For risk related to IT infrastructure failure, a possible control is to have a recovery plan that can restore the critical IT services and minimize the impact of the failure. A KCI that can measure the effectiveness of this control is the number of successful recovery plan tests, which indicates how well the recovery plan can be executed in a real scenario. The higher the number of successful tests, the lower the risk of IT infrastructure failure. Therefore, this is the best KCI among the given options. References =
* Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management
* Key Control Indicator (KCI) - CIO Wiki
* Infrastructure Issues: Understanding and Mitigating Risks
NEW QUESTION # 337
Which of the following statements is true for risk analysis?
- A. is incorrect. A risk analysis would not normally consider the benchmark of similar
companies as providing relevant information other than for comparison purposes. - B. Risk analysis should give more weight to the likelihood than the size of loss.
- C. Risk analysis should limit the scope to a benchmark of similar companies
- D. Explanation:
A risk analysis deals with the potential size and likelihood of loss. A risk analysis involves identifying the most probable threats to an organization and analyzing the related vulnerabilities of
the organization to these threats. A risk from an organizational perspective consists of:
Threats to various processes of organization.
Threats to physical and information assets.
Likelihood and frequency of occurrence from threat.
Impact on assets from threat and vulnerability.
Risk analysis allows the auditor to do the following tasks :
Identify threats and vulnerabilities to the enterprise and its information system.
Provide information for evaluation of controls in audit planning.
Aids in determining audit objectives.
Supporting decision based on risks. - E. Risk analysis should assume an equal degree of protection for all assets.
- F. is incorrect. Since the likelihood determines the size of the loss, hence both elements
must be considered in the calculation. - G. Risk analysis should address the potential size and likelihood of loss.
Answer: A,D,F,G
Explanation:
is incorrect. Assuming equal degree of protection would only be rational in the rare
event that all the assets are similar in sensitivity and criticality. Hence this is not practiced in risk
analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 338
In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?
- A. Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
- B. Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential
- C. Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data
- D. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed when an organization allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes is to require employees to sign nondisclosure agreements. Nondisclosure agreements are legal contracts that prohibit the employees from disclosing or sharing the company sensitive information with unauthorized parties, such as competitors, media, or regulators. Nondisclosure agreements also specify the scope, duration, and conditions of the nondisclosure obligation, and the penalties or remedies for breaching the agreement. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements is the best way to protect company sensitive information, as it helps to prevent or deter the employees from exposing or leaking the company sensitive information on social media, and to hold the employees accountable and liable for their actions. Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements also helps to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements for data protection and privacy. Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential, implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, and taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data are also useful ways, but they are not as effective as requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements, as they are either dependent on the employees' awareness or behavior, or reactive or corrective measures, rather than proactive or preventive measures. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
NEW QUESTION # 339
An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?
- A. Understanding the incident management process
- B. Identifying social engineering attacks
- C. Understanding the importance of using a secure password
- D. Archiving sensitive information
Answer: B
Explanation:
Social engineering attacks are attempts to manipulate or deceive people into revealing confidential or personal information, such as passwords, account numbers, or security codes. Customer service representatives are often targeted by social engineering attacks, as they have access to sensitive customer data and may be pressured to provide quick and satisfactory service. Therefore, it is most important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department how to identify and prevent social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, or impersonation.
References
*The role of customer service in cybersecurity - Security Intelligence
*How to Improve Risk Awareness in the Workplace [+ Template] - AlertMedia
*Top 4 Risks For Customer Service Teams | Resolver
NEW QUESTION # 340
Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?
- A. Risk map
- B. Risk dashboard
- C. Risk register
- D. Risk self-assessment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 341
Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?
- A. Availability of additional compensating controls
- B. Cost of the information system
- C. Single loss expectancy (SLE)
- D. Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels
Answer: D
Explanation:
The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented is the potential business impacts are within acceptable levels, because it indicates that the residual risk, which is the risk that remains after the risk response actions, does not exceed the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization, and that it does not pose a significant threat or disruption to the business objectives and processes. The potential business impacts are the consequences or outcomes of the residual risk on the organization's performance, reputation, and value. The other options are not as informative as the potential business impacts, because:
* Option A: Single loss expectancy (SLE) is a measure of the monetary loss that is expected from a single occurrence of a risk event, but it does not provide the best information when determining whether to accept residual risk, because it does not consider the frequency or probability of the risk event, or the qualitative aspects of the risk impact, such as customer satisfaction, employee morale, or regulatory compliance.
* Option B: Cost of the information system is a measure of the total expenditure that is required to acquire, develop, operate, and maintain the information system, but it does not provide the best information when determining whether to accept residual risk, because it does not reflect the value or benefit of the information system, or the risk exposure or variation that the information system may introduce or encounter.
* Option C: Availability of additional compensating controls is a measure of the alternative or supplementary controls that can be implemented to reduce the residual risk, but it does not provide the best information when determining whether to accept residual risk, because it does not indicate the effectiveness or efficiency of the compensating controls, or the cost-benefit analysis of implementing them. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p.
122.
NEW QUESTION # 342
A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?
- A. Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.
- B. Identify previous data breaches using the startup company's audit reports.
- C. Have the data privacy officer review the startup company's data protection policies.
- D. Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data protection is the process of safeguarding sensitive personal information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Data protection can help to ensure the privacy and security ofthe data subjects, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the data processing activities1.
A highly regulated organization that acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls faces a high risk of data breaches, fines, lawsuits, reputational damage, or loss of customer trust. The best way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company is to classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards, because it can help to:
Identify and categorize the sensitive personal information based on its value, sensitivity, and criticality, such as confidential, restricted, internal, or public Apply and enforce the appropriate data protection policies, procedures, and controls for each data category, such as encryption, access control, backup, retention, or disposal Align and integrate the data protection practices and processes of the startup company with those of the parent company, and ensure the consistency and compliance across the organization Balance and optimize the trade-off between data protection and data usability, and allow the startup company to leverage the data for innovation and growth, as long as it meets the data protection standards of the parent company23 The other options are not the best ways for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company, but rather some of the steps or aspects of data protection. Identify previous data breaches using the startup company's audit reports is a step that can help to assess the current data protection status and gaps of the startup company, and to learn from the past incidents and mistakes, but it does not address the future data protection needs and challenges of the startup company. Have the data privacy officer review the startup company's data protection policies is an aspect that can help to ensure the legal and regulatory compliance of the data protection activities of the startup company, and to provide guidance and oversight for the data protection issues and risks, but it does not ensure the technical and operational effectiveness and efficiency of the data protection controls of the startup company. Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network is a control that can help to prevent or limit the external or internal attacks or threats to the data of the startup company, and to reduce the exposure or impact of a data breach, but it does not ensure the availability or accessibility of the data for the legitimate and authorized purposes of the startup company. References = Data Protection - ISACA Data Classification - ISACA Data Protection Best Practices - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
NEW QUESTION # 343
One of the risk events you've identified is classified as force majeure. What risk response is likely to be used?
- A. is incorrect. Enhance is used for a positive risk event, not for force majeure.
- B. is incorrect. Mitigation isn't the best choice, as this lowers the probability and/or impact
of the risk event. - C. Enhance
- D. Mitigation
- E. Acceptance
- F. Explanation:
Force majeure describes acts of God (Natural disaster), such as tornados and fires, and are
usually accepted because there's little than can be done to mitigate these risks. - G. Transference
Answer: E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Transference transfers the risk ownership to a third party, usually for a fee.
NEW QUESTION # 344
Which of the following role carriers are responsible for setting up the risk governance process, establishing and maintaining a common risk view, making risk-aware business decisions, and setting the enterprise's risk culture?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
- A. Explanation:
The board of directors and senior management has the responsibility to set up the risk governance process, establish and maintain a common risk view, make risk-aware business decisions, and set the enterprise's risk culture. - B. Board of directors
- C. Senior management
- D. Human resources (HR)
- E. Chief financial officer (CFO)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
is incorrect. CFO is the most senior official 0f the enterprise who is accountable for financial planning, record keeping, investor relations and financial risks. CFO is not responsible for responsible for setting up the risk governance process, establishing and maintaining a common risk view, making risk-aware business decisions, and setting the enterprise's risk culture. Answer: C is incorrect. Human resource is the most senior official of an enterprise who is accountable for planning and policies with respect to all human resources in that enterprise. HR is not responsible for risk related activities.
NEW QUESTION # 345
Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware
culture?
- A. Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels
- B. Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls
- C. Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps
- D. Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices
Answer: A
Explanation:
A risk-aware culture is a culture that recognizes, understands, and values the importance of risk management
in achieving the organization's objectives and goals. A risk-aware culture is also a culture that supports and
encourages the identification, assessment, response, and monitoring of risks across the organization, as well as
the sharing and learning of risk information and best practices. One of the activities that would best contribute
to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture is communicating components of risk and their
acceptable levels. This is a technique to inform and educate the stakeholders and decision makers about the
nature and scope of the risks that the organization faces, as well as the criteria and standards that the
organization uses to measure and manage the risks. Communicating components of risk and their acceptable
levels can help to increase the awareness and understanding of the risks and their impact on the organization's
performance and value, as well as to align the expectations and behaviors of the stakeholders and decision
makers with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance. Communicating components of risk and their
acceptable levels can also help to foster a transparent and collaborative environment for risk management,
where the stakeholders and decision makers can openly discuss and address the risks and their implications, as
well as to provide and receive feedback and support. The other options are not the best activities to promote
an organization-wide risk-aware culture, although they may be relevant and useful. Performing a benchmark
analysis and evaluating gaps is a technique to compare and improve the organization's risk management
process and performance with the industry standards or best practices, as well as to identify and close the gaps
or weaknesses in the organization's risk management capabilities or maturity. However, this technique does
not necessarily promote a risk-aware culture, as it focuses on the process and performance of risk
management, not the attitude and behavior of risk management. Conducting risk assessments and
implementing controls is a technique to identify and analyze the risks that the organization faces, as well as to
select and execute the appropriate actions to address the risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or
accepting the risks. However, this technique does not directly promote a risk-aware culture, as it focuses on
the actions and outcomes of risk management, not the values and beliefs of risk management. Participating in
peer reviews and implementing best practices is a technique to evaluate and enhance the quality and
effectiveness of the organization's risk management activities anddeliverables, as well as to adopt and apply
the proven and successful methods or solutions for risk management. However, this technique does not
effectively promote a risk-aware culture, as it focuses on the improvement and optimization of risk
management, not the communication and collaboration of risk management. References = CRISC Review
Manual, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 982; The 6
keyelements to creating and maintaining a good risk culture3; How to increase risk awareness - Project
Management Institute4
NEW QUESTION # 346
An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization's change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:
- A. the average implementation time for changes.
- B. rolled back changes below management's thresholds.
- C. change-related exceptions per month.
- D. number of user stories approved for implementation.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 347
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?
- A. Demonstrate regulatory compliance
- B. Communicate IT risk policy to the participants
- C. Cultivate long-term behavioral change
- D. Ensure compliance with the organization's internal policies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 348
A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:
- A. collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.
- B. conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.
- C. identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.
- D. modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the best course of action when a risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations is to conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria, which is a method of comparing the current state of compliance with the desired or required state of compliance. Conducting a gap analysis against compliance criteria helps to:
Identify and evaluate the differences or discrepancies between the compliance requirements and the actual compliance practices and capabilities Assess the impact and severity of the compliance gaps on the organization's objectives and performance Prioritize the compliance gaps based on their urgency and importance Develop and implement appropriate actions or measures to close or reduce the compliance gaps Monitor and measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the actions or measures taken to address the compliance gaps References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 34-351
NEW QUESTION # 349
Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?
- A. Whistleblower program
- B. Access control attestation
- C. Periodic job rotation
- D. Transaction log monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whistleblower Program:
* A whistleblower program provides a confidential and anonymous channel for employees to report
* unethical behavior, violations of laws, regulations, or company policies.
* It is a proactive approach to uncover ethical violations that might not be detected through regular monitoring and controls.
Enabling Detection:
* Encourages employees to come forward without fear of retaliation.
* Provides management with early warning signs of potential ethical issues, allowing them to address problems before they escalate.
Comparing Other Methods:
* Transaction Log Monitoring: While useful for detecting anomalies, it may not specifically identify ethical violations.
* Access Control Attestation: Ensures that users have appropriate access but does not directly address ethical behavior.
* Periodic Job Rotation: Helps prevent fraud by reducing opportunities for unethical behavior but may not actively detect violations.
References:
* The CRISC Review Manual discusses the role of whistleblower programs in managing ethical risks and detecting violations (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4.4 Reporting Mechanisms) .
NEW QUESTION # 350
Which of the following baselines identifies the specifications required by the resource that meet the approved requirements?
- A. Product baseline
- B. Allocated baseline
- C. Developmental baseline
- D. Functional baseline
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Allocated baseline identifies the specifications that meet the approved requirements.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Functional baseline identifies the initial specifications before any changes are made.
C: Product baseline identifies the minimal specification required by the resource to meet business outcomes.
D: Developmental baseline identifies the state of the resources as it is developed to meet or exceed expectations and requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 351
Which of the following is NOT the method of Qualitative risk analysis?
- A. Attribute analysis
- B. Business process modeling (BPM) and simulation
- C. Scorecards
- D. Likelihood-impact matrix
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Business process modeling (BPM) and simulation is a method of Quantitative risk analysis and not Qualitative risk analysis.
The BPM and simulation discipline is an effective method of identifying and quantifying the operational risk in enterprise business processes. It improves business process efficiency and effectiveness.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These three are the methods of Qualitative risk analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 352
Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?
- A. Establishing an organization's risk tolerance
- B. Executing a risk response plan
- C. Conducting awareness training
- D. Performing periodic audits
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best way to mitigate an identified risk scenario is to execute a risk response plan. A risk response plan is a document that describes the actions and resources that are needed to address the risk scenario. A risk response plan can include one or more of the following strategies: avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept, or exploit. By executing a risk response plan, the organization can reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk scenario, or take advantage of the opportunities that the risk scenario may present. The other options are not as effective as executing a risk response plan, as they are related to the awareness, assessment, or monitoring of the risk scenario, not the actual treatment of the risk scenario. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
NEW QUESTION # 353
To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?
- A. Organizational objectives
- B. Inherent and residual risk
- C. Risk appetite of the organization
- D. Compliance objectives
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 354
......
Use Valid New CRISC Test Notes & CRISC Valid Exam Guide: https://www.pdfdumps.com/CRISC-valid-exam.html
CRISC exam torrent ISACA study guide: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1DL06lbvNGQI56PTSq1KSTN4kuPeUEwuX